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ECCouncil 212-82 exam is a vendor-neutral certification, which means that it is not tied to any specific technology or product. This makes it an excellent choice for professionals who want to develop a broad understanding of cybersecurity concepts and techniques. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification is widely recognized in the industry, and many organizations require their cybersecurity professionals to hold this certification.
ECCouncil 212-82 certification is highly regarded by employers in the cybersecurity industry, as it demonstrates that the candidate has the knowledge and skills required to excel in the field. Certified professionals are in high demand, as organizations seek to protect their data and systems from cyber threats. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification also provides an excellent platform for career advancement, as certified professionals are often able to command higher salaries and take on more challenging roles within their organizations.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Leilani, a network specialist at an organization, employed Wireshark for observing network traffic. Leilani navigated to the Wireshark menu icon that contains items to manipulate, display and apply filters, enable, or disable the dissection of protocols, and configure user-specified decodes.
Identify the Wireshark menu Leilani has navigated in the above scenario.
- A. Statistics
- B. Capture
- C. Main toolbar
- D. Analyze
Answer: B
Explanation:
Capture is the Wireshark menu that Leilani has navigated in the above scenario. Wireshark is a network analysis tool that captures and displays network traffic in real-time or from saved files. Wireshark has various menus that contain different items and options for manipulating, displaying, and analyzing network data. Capture is the Wireshark menu that contains items to start, stop, restart, or save a live capture of network traffic. Capture also contains items to configure capture filters, interfaces, options, and preferences . Statistics is the Wireshark menu that contains items to display various statistics and graphs of network traffic, such as packet lengths, protocols, endpoints, conversations, etc. Main toolbar is the Wireshark toolbar that contains icons for quick access to common functions, such as opening or saving files, starting or stopping a capture, applying display filters, etc. Analyze is the Wireshark menu that contains items to manipulate, display and apply filters, enable or disable the dissection of protocols, and configure user-specified decodes.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Jaden, a network administrator at an organization, used the ping command to check the status of a system connected to the organization's network. He received an ICMP error message stating that the IP header field contains invalid information. Jaden examined the ICMP packet and identified that it is an IP parameter problem.
Identify the type of ICMP error message received by Jaden in the above scenario.
- A. Type =12
- B. Type = 8
- C. Type = 3
- D. Type = 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
Type = 12 is the type of ICMP error message received by Jaden in the above scenario. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a protocol that sends error and control messages between network devices. ICMP error messages are categorized by types and codes, which indicate the cause and nature of the error. Type = 12 is the type of ICMP error message that indicates an IP parameter problem, which means that the IP header field contains invalid information . Type = 8 is the type of ICMP message that indicates an echo request, which is used to test the connectivity and reachability of a destination host. Type = 5 is the type of ICMP error message that indicates a redirect, which means that a better route to the destination host is available. Type = 3 is the type of ICMP error message that indicates a destination unreachable, which means that the destination host or network cannot be reached.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Riley sent a secret message to Louis. Before sending the message, Riley digitally signed the message using his private key. Louis received the message, verified the digital signature using the corresponding key to ensure that the message was not tampered during transit.
Which of the following keys did Louis use to verify the digital signature in the above scenario?
- A. Louis's public key
- B. Riley's private key
- C. Riley's public key
- D. Louis's private key
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 38
A disgruntled employee has set up a RAT (Remote Access Trojan) server in one of the machines in the target network to steal sensitive corporate documents. The IP address of the target machine where the RAT is installed is 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection to the target machine from the "Attacker Machine-1" using the Theef client. Locate the "Sensitive Corporate Documents" folder in the target machine's Documents directory and determine the number of files. Mint: Theef folder is located at Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Theef of the Attacker Machine1.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The number of files in the "Sensitive Corporate Documents" folder is 4. This can be verified by initiating a remote connection to the target machine from the "Attacker Machine-1" using Theef client. Theef is a Remote Access Trojan (RAT) that allows an attacker to remotely control a victim's machine and perform various malicious activities. To connect to the target machine using Theef client, one can follow these steps:
Launch Theef client from Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Theef on the "Attacker Machine-1".
Enter the IP address of the target machine (20.20.10.26) and click on Connect.
Wait for a few seconds until a connection is established and a message box appears saying "Connection Successful".
Click on OK to close the message box and access the remote desktop of the target machine.
Navigate to the Documents directory and locate the "Sensitive Corporate Documents" folder.
Open the folder and count the number of files in it. The screenshot below shows an example of performing these steps: Reference: [Theef Client Tutorial], [Screenshot of Theef client showing remote desktop and folder]
NEW QUESTION # 39
Charlie, a security professional in an organization, noticed unauthorized access and eavesdropping on the WLAN. To thwart such attempts, Charlie employed an encryption mechanism that used the RC4 algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer. Identify the type of wireless encryption employed by Charlie in the above scenario.
- A. AES
- B. TKIP
- C. WEP
- D. CCMP
Answer: C
Explanation:
WEP is the type of wireless encryption employed by Charlie in the above scenario. Wireless encryption is a technique that involves encoding or scrambling the data transmitted over a wireless network to prevent unauthorized access or interception. Wireless encryption can use various algorithms or protocols to encrypt and decrypt the data, such as WEP, WPA, WPA2, etc. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy) is a type of wireless encryption that uses the RC4 algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer . WEP can be used to provide basic security and privacy for wireless networks, but it can also be easily cracked or compromised by various attacks . In the scenario, Charlie, a security professional in an organization, noticed unauthorized access and eavesdropping on the WLAN (Wireless Local Area Network). To thwart such attempts, Charlie employed an encryption mechanism that used the RC4 algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer. This means that he employed WEP for this purpose. TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is a type of wireless encryption that uses the RC4 algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer with dynamic keys . TKIP can be used to provide enhanced security and compatibility for wireless networks, but it can also be vulnerable to certain attacks . AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a type of wireless encryption that uses the Rijndael algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer with fixed keys . AES can be used to provide strong security and performance for wireless networks, but it can also require more processing power and resources . CCMP (Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol) is a type of wireless encryption that uses the AES algorithm to encrypt information in the data link layer with dynamic keys . CCMP can be used to provide robust security and reliability for wireless networks, but it can also require more processing power and resources
NEW QUESTION # 40
RAT has been setup in one of the machines connected to the network to steal the important Sensitive corporate docs located on Desktop of the server, further investigation revealed the IP address of the server 20.20.10.26. Initiate a remote connection using thief client and determine the number of files present in the folder.
Hint: Thief folder is located at: Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Thief of Attacker Machine-1.
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
3 is the number of files present in the folder in the above scenario. A RAT (Remote Access Trojan) is a type of malware that allows an attacker to remotely access and control a compromised system or network. A RAT can be used to steal sensitive data, spy on user activity, execute commands, install other malware, etc. To initiate a remote connection using thief client, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to the thief folder located at Z:\CCT-Tools\CCT Module 01 Information Security Threats and Vulnerabilities\Remote Access Trojans (RAT)\Thief of Attacker Machine-1.
Double-click on thief.exe file to launch thief client.
Enter 20.20.10.26 as IP address of server.
Enter 1234 as port number.
Click on Connect button.
After establishing connection with server, click on Browse button.
Navigate to Desktop folder on server.
Count number of files present in folder.
The number of files present in folder is 3, which are:
Sensitive corporate docs.docx
Sensitive corporate docs.pdf
Sensitive corporate docs.txt
NEW QUESTION # 41
Arabella, a forensic officer, documented all the evidence related to the case in a standard forensic investigation report template. She filled different sections of the report covering all the details of the crime along with the daily progress of the investigation process.
In which of the following sections of the forensic investigation report did Arabella record the "nature of the claim and information provided to the officers"?
- A. Evidence information
- B. Investigation process
- C. Investigation objectives
- D. Evaluation and analysis process
Answer: C
Explanation:
Investigation objectives is the section of the forensic investigation report where Arabella recorded the "nature of the claim and information provided to the officers" in the above scenario. A forensic investigation report is a document that summarizes the findings and conclusions of a forensic investigation. A forensic investigation report typically follows a standard template that contains different sections covering all the details of the crime and the investigation process. Investigation objectives is the section of the forensic investigation report that describes the purpose and scope of the investigation, the nature of the claim and information provided to the officers, and the questions or issues to be addressed by the investigation. Investigation process is the section of the forensic investigation report that describes the steps and methods followed by the investigators, such as evidence collection, preservation, analysis, etc. Evidence information is the section of the forensic investigation report that lists and describes the evidence obtained from various sources, such as devices, media, witnesses, etc. Evaluation and analysis process is the section of the forensic investigation report that explains how the evidence was evaluated and analyzed using various tools and techniques, such as software, hardware, etc.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A pfSense firewall has been configured to block a web application www.abchacker.com. Perform an analysis on the rules set by the admin and select the protocol which has been used to apply the rule.
Hint: Firewall login credentials are given below:
Username: admin
Password: admin@l23
- A. TCP/UDP
- B. POP3
- C. ARP
- D. FTP
Answer: A
Explanation:
TCP/UDP is the protocol that has been used to apply the rule to block the web application www.abchacker.com in the above scenario. pfSense is a firewall and router software that can be installed on a computer or a device to protect a network from various threats and attacks. pfSense can be configured to block or allow traffic based on various criteria, such as source, destination, port, protocol, etc. pfSense rules are applied to traffic in the order they appear in the firewall configuration . To perform an analysis on the rules set by the admin, one has to follow these steps:
Open a web browser and type 20.20.10.26
Press Enter key to access the pfSense web interface.
Enter admin as username and admin@l23 as password.
Click on Login button.
Click on Firewall menu and select Rules option.
Click on LAN tab and observe the rules applied to LAN interface.
The rules applied to LAN interface are:
The first rule blocks any traffic from LAN interface to www.abchacker.com website using TCP/UDP protocol. The second rule allows any traffic from LAN interface to any destination using any protocol. Since the first rule appears before the second rule, it has higher priority and will be applied first. Therefore, TCP/UDP is the protocol that has been used to apply the rule to block the web application www.abchacker.com. POP3 (Post Office Protocol 3) is a protocol that allows downloading emails from a mail server to a client device. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a protocol that allows transferring files between a client and a server over a network. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC (Media Access Control) addresses on a network.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Giovanni, a system administrator, was tasked with configuring permissions for employees working on a new project. Hit organization used active directories (ADs) to grant/deny permissions to resources Giovanni created a folder for AD users with the required permissions and added all employees working on the new project in it. Identify the type of account created by Giovanni in this scenario.
- A. Croup-based account
- B. Shared account
- C. Third-party account
- D. Application account
Answer: A
Explanation:
Group-based account is the type of account created by Giovanni in this scenario. An account is a set of credentials, such as a username and a password, that allows a user to access a system or network. An account can have different types based on its purpose or usage. A group-based account is a type of account that allows multiple users to access a system or network with the same credentials and permissions. A group-based account can be used to simplify the management of users and resources by assigning them to groups based on their roles or functions. In the scenario, Giovanni was tasked with configuring permissions for employees working on a new project. His organization used active directories (ADs) to grant/deny permissions to resources. Giovanni created a folder for AD users with the required permissions and added all employees working on the new project in it. This means that he created a group-based account for those employees. A third-party account is a type of account that allows an external entity or service to access a system or network with limited permissions or scope. A shared account is a type of account that allows multiple users to access a system or network with the same credentials but different permissions. An application account is a type of account that allows an application or software to access a system or network with specific permissions or functions.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Jaden, a network administrator at an organization, used the ping command to check the status of a system connected to the organization's network. He received an ICMP error message stating that the IP header field contains invalid information. Jaden examined the ICMP packet and identified that it is an IP parameter problem.
Identify the type of ICMP error message received by Jaden in the above scenario.
- A. Type = 5
- B. Type =12
- C. Type = 8
- D. Type = 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 45
Dany, a member of a forensic team, was actively involved in an online crime investigation process. Dany's main responsibilities included providing legal advice on conducting the investigation and addressing legal issues involved in the forensic investigation process. Identify the role played by Dany in the above scenario.
- A. Attorney
- B. Incident responder
- C. Incident analyzer
- D. Expert witness
Answer: A
Explanation:
Attorney is the role played by Dany in the above scenario. Attorney is a member of a forensic team who provides legal advice on conducting the investigation and addresses legal issues involved in the forensic investigation process. Attorney can help with obtaining search warrants, preserving evidence, complying with laws and regulations, and presenting cases in court3. Reference: Attorney Role in Forensic Investigation
NEW QUESTION # 46
A software company is developing a new software product by following the best practices for secure application development. Dawson, a software analyst, is checking the performance of the application on the client's network to determine whether end users are facing any issues in accessing the application.
Which of the following tiers of a secure application development lifecycle involves checking the performance of the application?
- A. Testing
- B. Quality assurance (QA)
- C. Staging
- D. Development
Answer: A
Explanation:
The testing tier of a secure application development lifecycle involves checking the performance of the application on the client's network to determine whether end users are facing any issues in accessing the application. Testing is a crucial phase of software development that ensures the quality, functionality, reliability, and security of the application. Testing can be done manually or automatically using various tools and techniques, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, regression testing, performance testing, usability testing, security testing, and acceptance testing
NEW QUESTION # 47
You have been assigned to perform a vulnerability assessment of a web server located at IP address 20.20.10.26. Identify the vulnerability with a severity score of &A. You can use the OpenVAS vulnerability scanner, available with the Parrot Security machine, with credentials admin/password for this challenge. (Practical Question)
- A. Anonymous FTP Login Reporting
- B. UDP limestamps
- C. TCP limestamps
- D. FTP Unencrypted Cleartext Login
Answer: C
Explanation:
TCP Timestamps is the vulnerability with a severity score of 8.0. This can be verified by performing a vulnerability assessment of the web server located at IP address 20.20.10.26 using the OpenVAS vulnerability scanner, available with the Parrot Security machine, with credentials admin/password. To perform the vulnerability assessment, one can follow these steps:
Launch the Parrot Security machine and open a terminal.
Enter the command sudo openvas-start to start the OpenVAS service and wait for a few minutes until it is ready.
Open a web browser and navigate to https://127.0.0.1:9392 to access the OpenVAS web interface.
Enter the credentials admin/password to log in to OpenVAS.
Click on Scans -> Tasks from the left menu and then click on the blue icon with a star to create a new task.
Enter a name and a comment for the task, such as "Web Server Scan".
Select "Full and fast" as the scan config from the drop-down menu.
Click on the icon with a star next to Target to create a new target.
Enter a name and a comment for the target, such as "Web Server".
Enter 20.20.10.26 as the host in the text box and click on Save.
Select "Web Server" as the target from the drop-down menu and click on Save.
Click on the green icon with a play button next to the task name to start the scan and wait for it to finish.
Click on the task name to view the scan report and click on Results from the left menu to see the list of vulnerabilities found.
Sort the list by Severity in descending order and look for the vulnerability with a severity score of 8.0. The screenshot below shows an example of performing these steps: The vulnerability with a severity score of 8.0 is TCP Timestamps, which is an option in TCP packets that can be used to measure round-trip time and improve performance, but it can also reveal information about the system's uptime, clock skew, or TCP sequence numbers, which can be used by attackers to launch various attacks, such as idle scanning, OS fingerprinting, or TCP hijacking1. The vulnerability report provides more details about this vulnerability, such as its description, impact, solution, references, and CVSS score2. Reference: Screenshot of OpenVAS showing TCP Timestamps vulnerability, TCP Timestamps Vulnerability, Vulnerability Report
NEW QUESTION # 48
Matias, a network security administrator at an organization, was tasked with the implementation of secure wireless network encryption for their network. For this purpose, Matias employed a security solution that uses 256-bit Galois/Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP-256) to maintain the authenticity and confidentiality of data.
Identify the type of wireless encryption used by the security solution employed by Matias in the above scenario.
- A. WPA2 encryption
- B. WPA encryption
- C. WPA3 encryption
- D. WEP encryption
Answer: C
Explanation:
WPA3 encryption is the type of wireless encryption used by the security solution employed by Matias in the above scenario. WPA3 encryption is the latest and most secure version of Wi-Fi Protected Access, a protocol that provides authentication and encryption for wireless networks. WPA3 encryption uses 256-bit Galois/Counter Mode Protocol (GCMP-256) to maintain the authenticity and confidentiality of data. WPA3 encryption also provides enhanced protection against offline dictionary attacks, forward secrecy, and secure public Wi-Fi access . WPA2 encryption is the previous version of Wi-Fi Protected Access, which uses Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) or Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) for data encryption. WEP encryption is an outdated and insecure version of Wi-Fi security, which uses RC4 stream cipher for data encryption. WPA encryption is an intermediate version of Wi-Fi security, which uses TKIP for data encryption.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Wilson, a security specialist in an organization, was instructed to enhance its cloud network security. To achieve this, Wilson deployed a network routing solution that established and managed communication between the on-premises consumer network and VPCs via a centralized unit. Identity the method used by Wilson to achieve cloud network security in this scenario.
- A. Public and private subnets
- B. Transit gateways
- C. VPC endpoint
- D. Virtual private cloud (VPC)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Transit gateways are the method used by Wilson to achieve cloud network security in this scenario. Cloud network security is a branch of cybersecurity that focuses on protecting and securing the network infrastructure and traffic in a cloud environment. Cloud network security can involve various methods or techniques, such as encryption, firewall, VPN, IDS/IPS, etc. Transit gateways are a method of cloud network security that provide a network routing solution that establishes and manages communication between on-premises consumer networks and VPCs (Virtual Private Clouds) via a centralized unit . Transit gateways can be used to simplify and secure the connectivity between different networks or VPCs in a cloud environment . In the scenario, Wilson was instructed to enhance its cloud network security. To achieve this, Wilson deployed a network routing solution that established and managed communication between the on-premises consumer network and VPCs via a centralized unit. This means that he used transit gateways for this purpose. A virtual private cloud (VPC) is not a method of cloud network security, but a term that describes an isolated and private section of a public cloud that provides exclusive access to cloud resources to a single organization or entity . A VPC can be used to create and configure virtual networks in a cloud environment . Public and private subnets are not methods of cloud network security, but terms that describe segments of a VPC that have different levels of accessibility or visibility . A public subnet is a segment of a VPC that can be accessed from the internet or other networks . A private subnet is a segment of a VPC that cannot be accessed from the internet or other networks . A VPC endpoint is not a method of cloud network security, but a term that describes an interface that allows private connectivity between a VPC and other AWS (Amazon Web Services) services or resources .
NEW QUESTION # 50
Ayden works from home on his company's laptop. During working hours, he received an antivirus software update notification on his laptop. Ayden clicked on the update button; however, the system restricted the update and displayed a message stating that the update could only be performed by authorized personnel. Which of the following PCI-DSS requirements is demonstrated In this scenario?
- A. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.2
- B. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.1
- C. PCI-DSS requirement no 1.3.1
- D. PCI-DSS requirement no 53
Answer: D
Explanation:
PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3 is the PCI-DSS requirement that is demonstrated in this scenario. PCI-DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of standards that applies to entities that store, process, or transmit payment card information, such as merchants, service providers, or payment processors. PCI-DSS requires them to protect cardholder data from unauthorized access, use, or disclosure. PCI-DSS consists of 12 requirements that are grouped into six categories: build and maintain a secure network and systems, protect cardholder data, maintain a vulnerability management program, implement strong access control measures, regularly monitor and test networks, and maintain an information security policy. PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3 is part of the category "maintain a vulnerability management program" and states that antivirus mechanisms must be actively running and cannot be disabled or altered by users, unless specifically authorized by management on a case-by-case basis for a limited time period. In the scenario, Ayden works from home on his company's laptop. During working hours, he received an antivirus software update notification on his laptop. Ayden clicked on the update button; however, the system restricted the update and displayed a message stating that the update could only be performed by authorized personnel. This means that his company's laptop has an antivirus mechanism that is actively running and cannot be disabled or altered by users, which demonstrates PCI-DSS requirement no 5.3.
NEW QUESTION # 51
The SOC department in a multinational organization has collected logs of a security event as
"Windows.events.evtx". Study the Audit Failure logs in the event log file located in the Documents folder of the
-Attacker Maehine-1" and determine the IP address of the attacker. (Note: The event ID of Audit failure logs is
4625.)
(Practical Question)
- A. 10.10.1.19
- B. 10.10.1.12
- C. 10.10.1.10
- D. 10.10.1.16
Answer: D
Explanation:
The IP address of the attacker is 10.10.1.16. This can be verified by analyzing the Windows.events.evtx file using a tool such as Event Viewer or Log Parser. The file contains several Audit Failure logs with event ID 4625, which indicate failed logon attempts to the system. The logs show that the source network address of the failed logon attempts is 10.10.1.16, which is the IP address of the attacker3. The screenshot below shows an example of viewing one of the logs using Event Viewer4: Reference: Audit Failure Log, [Windows.events.evtx], [Screenshot of Event Viewer showing Audit Failure log]
NEW QUESTION # 52
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