WGU Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Cert Guide PDF 100% Cover Real Exam Questions
Pass Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Exam - Real Questions and Answers
WGU Cloud-Deployment-and-Operations Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 38
(Which solution sends DNS queries to separate AWS compute instances?)
- A. Amazon Route 53
- B. Amazon CloudWatch
- C. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
- D. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Amazon Route 53 is the AWS solution that sends DNS queries to separate AWS compute instances by leveraging routing policies to distribute traffic across multiple resources. It acts as a scalable Domain Name System (DNS) service, directing queries to healthy instances based on configurations like latency or weighted routing. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53) states, "Route 53 uses DNS to route end-user requests to multiple AWS compute instances, supporting features like health checks and traffic distribution." Elastic Beanstalk, CloudWatch, and EC2 Auto Scaling do not perform DNS query routing.
NEW QUESTION # 39
(Which performance optimization method must be used when uploading files larger than 5 GB to S3?)
- A. Intelligent-Tiering
- B. Multipart uploads
- C. Transfer Acceleration
- D. Glacier Select
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multipart uploads must be used when uploading files larger than 5 GB to Amazon S3, as this method splits the file into smaller parts for parallel upload, improving reliability and performance. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 2.1, S3 Uploads) states, "For files exceeding 5 GB, multipart upload is required in S3, allowing the file to be divided into parts (minimum 5 MB each) for concurrent uploads, ensuring efficient and resumable transfers." Glacier Select, Transfer Acceleration, and Intelligent-Tiering are not designed for this upload optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 40
(Which solution is used to protect a server from Layer 7 attacks?)
- A. CloudWatch
- B. WAF
- C. KMS key rotation
- D. Shield
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS WAF (Web Application Firewall) is used to protect a server from Layer 7 (application layer) attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, by filtering HTTP/HTTPS traffic based on defined rules. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 6.2, AWS WAF) states, "WAF protects web applications at Layer 7 by inspecting and blocking malicious requests, such as those involving SQL injection or XSS, when integrated with ALB or CloudFront." Shield protects against DDoS (Layer 3/4), CloudWatch monitors metrics, and KMS key rotation manages encryption, none of which address Layer 7 attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 41
(Which function is used to obtain components defined in an AWS CloudFormation template?)
- A. Cidr
- B. Ref
- C. ImportValue
- D. GetAZs
Answer: B
Explanation:
The `Ref` function in an AWS CloudFormation template is used to obtain values of components defined within the template, such as resource IDs, parameters, or outputs. This function allows dynamic referencing of resources during stack creation. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.3, CloudFormation Functions) states, "The `Ref` function is used to reference the logical IDs of resources, parameters, or mappings defined in the template, enabling dynamic value retrieval (e.g., `Ref:
MyEC2Instance` returns the instance ID)." ImportValue is used for cross-stack references, Cidr for IP range calculations, and GetAZs for availability zone lists, making them unsuitable here.
NEW QUESTION # 42
(How are custom metrics grouped in CloudWatch?)
- A. Date
- B. Value
- C. Service
- D. Namespace
Answer: D
Explanation:
In Amazon CloudWatch, custom metrics are organized and grouped using namespaces. A namespace is a container for CloudWatch metrics that allows you to isolate and categorize metrics from different applications or services. According to the WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.1, CloudWatch Metrics), each custom metric must be assigned to a namespace, which acts as a unique identifier to prevent naming collisions and facilitate metric management. Options like Service, Date, and Value are not used for grouping metrics in this context.
NEW QUESTION # 43
(Which AWS monitoring feature is used to process events using AWS Lambda?)
- A. Logs
- B. Metrics
- C. Targets
- D. Rules
Answer: D
Explanation:
The AWS monitoring feature used to process events with AWS Lambda is CloudWatch Events, specifically through the use of rules. Rules define the events to monitor (e.g., based on event patterns) and specify targets like AWS Lambda functions to process those events. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.3, CloudWatch Events) explains that rules are the core component for event-driven architectures, enabling automation by linking events to Lambda for processing. Metrics, targets, and logs are related but not the primary feature for this function.
NEW QUESTION # 44
(Which two protocols are supported in security group rules? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. MPLS
- B. BGP
- C. ICMP
- D. UDP
Answer: C,D
Explanation:
Security group rules in AWS support the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) for defining inbound and outbound traffic rules. These protocols are commonly used for network communication and monitoring. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
3.2, Security Groups) states, "Security groups support protocols like ICMP for diagnostic traffic and UDP for streaming or low-latency applications, allowing fine-grained control over instance access." BGP and MPLS are routing or network layer protocols not supported by security group rules.
NEW QUESTION # 45
(A company that uses five Elastic IP addresses does not want to request more from AWS. Which solution should be used to route requests to a healthy endpoint?)
- A. Register a DNS name to an auto-assigned public IP address
- B. Edit the route table for the VPC
- C. Adjust the TTL of the IP packets
- D. Use Systems Manager to update endpoints
Answer: A
Explanation:
To route requests to a healthy endpoint without requesting additional Elastic IP addresses, the company should register a DNS name to an auto-assigned public IP address using a service like Route 53. This leverages dynamic DNS to distribute traffic, reducing reliance on fixed EIPs. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.1, Route 53) states, "Registering a DNS name with an auto-assigned public IP in Route 53 allows traffic routing to healthy instances, avoiding the need for additional Elastic IP addresses." TTL adjustment, route table edits, and Systems Manager are not relevant solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 46
(What needs to be configured in Systems Manager to run Automation documents on schedule?)
- A. Rate control
- B. Resource groups
- C. Maintenance window
- D. Session preferences
Answer: C
Explanation:
To run Automation documents on a schedule in AWS Systems Manager, a maintenance window must be configured. Maintenance windows define the time periods during which automated tasks, including the execution of Automation documents, can run. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.2, Maintenance Windows) explains that maintenance windows are used to schedule and control the execution of Systems Manager tasks, ensuring they align with operational windows. Rate control, session preferences, and resource groups are not used for scheduling automation tasks.
NEW QUESTION # 47
(A company is using CloudWatch on its EC2 instances. The company needs to determine the number of bytes received by an instance on all network interfaces for proper sizing of the instance. Which metric should the company use?)
- A. NetworkPacketsOut
- B. NetworkPacketsIn
- C. NetworkOut
- D. NetworkIn
Answer: D
Explanation:
The `NetworkIn` metric in Amazon CloudWatch should be used to determine the number of bytes received by an EC2 instance across all network interfaces, aiding in proper instance sizing based on inbound traffic. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.1, CloudWatch Metrics) states, "The
`NetworkIn` metric measures the total number of bytes received on all network interfaces of an EC2 instance, providing critical data for sizing decisions to handle inbound traffic effectively." NetworkPacketsIn, NetworkOut, and NetworkPacketsOut measure packet counts or outbound data, which are less relevant for this purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 48
(A company manages a containerized application by manually deploying AWS compute instances. Which solution should be used to optimize the cost of the application?)
- A. Aurora
- B. Fargate
- C. RDS
- D. EFS
Answer: B
Explanation:
AWS Fargate should be used to optimize the cost of a containerized application by eliminating the need for manual instance management, as it provides serverless container orchestration that automatically scales and charges only for resource usage. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 7.5, Fargate) states, "Fargate optimizes costs for containerized applications by removing the overhead of managing EC2 instances, scaling automatically, and billing based on vCPU and memory usage, reducing manual deployment expenses." Aurora, RDS, and EFS are database or storage solutions not designed for container cost optimization.
NEW QUESTION # 49
(Where does Patch Manager send compliance reports?)
- A. Elastic Block Store (EBS)
- B. Route 53
- C. Simple Storage Service (S3)
- D. OpsWorks
Answer: C
Explanation:
Patch Manager in AWS Systems Manager sends compliance reports to an Amazon S3 bucket, where they are stored for auditing and analysis. This allows administrators to track patch compliance status across EC2 instances and on-premises servers. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.2, Patch Manager) states, "Patch Manager compliance reports are delivered to an S3 bucket configured as a target, providing a centralized location for reviewing patch status and compliance data." OpsWorks, EBS, and Route 53 are not used for storing these reports.
NEW QUESTION # 50
(Which CloudWatch metric filter includes log events with the word ERROR but excludes log events with the word WARNING?)
- A. ERROR -WARN
- B. ERROR WARN
- C. ?ERROR ?WARN
- D. "ERROR" WARN
Answer: A
Explanation:
A metric filter in Amazon CloudWatch Logs can be used to search for specific terms in log data and create metrics based on the matches. To include log events with the word "ERROR" and exclude those with the word "WARNING," the correct syntax involves using a filter pattern with a positive match for "ERROR" and a negation for "WARNING." The correct pattern is "ERROR -WARN," where the minus sign (-) indicates exclusion of log events containing "WARN." According to the WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.2, CloudWatch Logs), metric filters use a pattern-based syntax where terms are included or excluded using positive matches and the negation operator (-). This ensures that only logs with
"ERROR" and without "WARN" are processed into the metric.
NEW QUESTION # 51
(An administrator needs to deploy a NAT gateway in an existing VPC subnet. Which two tasks should this administrator perform during deployment? Choose 2 answers.)
- A. Configure the route table associated with the subnet
- B. Assign a private IP address to the NAT gateway
- C. Configure the access control list associated with the subnet
- D. Assign an elastic IP address to the NAT gateway
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
To deploy a NAT gateway in an existing VPC subnet, the administrator must assign an elastic IP address to the NAT gateway for public internet access and configure the route table associated with the subnet to route traffic through the NAT gateway. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 3.2, NAT Gateway) states, "Deployment of a NAT gateway requires an elastic IP address for outbound internet connectivity and a route table update to direct private subnet traffic to the NAT gateway (e.g., 0.0.0.0/0 via NAT)." Private IP assignment and ACL configuration are not required steps.
NEW QUESTION # 52
(A company is using the CloudWatch agent on its EC2 Linux instances. The company needs to determine how long read requests have waited on the instance's I/O for proper sizing of the instance. Which metric should the company use?)
- A. disk_read_ops
- B. disk_io_time
- C. diskio_reads
- D. diskio_read_bytes
Answer: B
Explanation:
The `disk_io_time` metric, collected by the CloudWatch agent on EC2 Linux instances, measures the total time (in milliseconds) that read and write requests have waited on I/O, helping to assess disk performance for instance sizing. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.1, CloudWatch Agent Metrics) states, "The `disk_io_time` metric, available via the CloudWatch agent, tracks the time spent waiting for I/O operations, providing insight into disk contention for optimizing EC2 instance sizing." disk_read_ops, diskio_reads, and diskio_read_bytes measure operation counts or bytes, not wait times.
NEW QUESTION # 53
(What is the role of a patch baseline in Patch Manager?)
- A. Assigns an IAM role for services that can auto-approve patches upon release
- B. Notifies Config of any patch updates that need to be performed
- C. Defines patches that should and should not be installed on EC2 instances
- D. Installs all patch updates as they become available by default
Answer: C
Explanation:
A patch baseline in Patch Manager defines the patches that should and should not be installed on EC2 instances, specifying approval rules for security updates, other updates, and exclusions. This ensures controlled and compliant patching. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 5.2, Patch Manager) states, "A patch baseline specifies which patches are approved for installation and which are excluded, allowing customization of patch deployment (e.g., approving only critical security updates)." Options A, B, and D misrepresent the baseline's role, as it does not auto-install, assign IAM roles, or notify Config directly.
NEW QUESTION # 54
(Which component should be used to configure email notifications for a trigger by Amazon Made?)
- A. Elastic Kubernetes Service
- B. CodeDeploy
- C. Simple Queue Service
- D. EventBridge
Answer: D
Explanation:
Amazon EventBridge should be used to configure email notifications for a trigger by Amazon Made, as it can route events to targets like Amazon SNS (Simple Notification Service) for email delivery. EventBridge integrates with AWS services to handle event-driven notifications. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section 4.3, EventBridge) states, "EventBridge can be configured to send events from Amazon Made to SNS, enabling email notifications by subscribing an email endpoint to the SNS topic." SQS, EKS, and CodeDeploy do not support this notification configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 55
(A company builds an application that renders 3D movies for its users. The application does this by spawning a fleet of instances that each take a slice of the workload and then render a few hundred frames in around 30 minutes. If processing on a node is interrupted, the work can be moved to other running nodes. The cost to users is based on the underlying AWS cost plus a margin. Which EC2 instance type is most suitable to run workload pattern at the lowest cost?)
- A. Spot Instance
- B. On-Demand Instance
- C. Dedicated Instance
- D. Reserved Instance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Spot Instances are the most suitable EC2 instance type for this workload pattern, offering the lowest cost for short, interruptible tasks like 3D rendering, where work can be redistributed if interrupted. This aligns with the company's cost-plus pricing model. The WGU Cloud Deployment and Operations Study Guide (Section
7.3, EC2 Instance Types) states, "Spot Instances provide significant cost savings (up to 90% off On-Demand) for fault-tolerant, short-term workloads like rendering, where interruptions can be handled by redistributing tasks to other nodes." On-Demand, Dedicated, and Reserved Instances are more expensive and less flexible for this use case.
NEW QUESTION # 56
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